Medical Health Science Nursing Students Hematology MCQ
1.
Erythroblasts containing what are called sideroblasts?
A.
Hemosiderin
B.
Ferritin
C.
Residual RNA
D. All of
the above
2.
Hemolysis is most likely cause if reticulocyte production index is more than?
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 5.5
3. Which
of the following anemias is most frequent?
A.
Hypoproliferative
B.
Maturation Disorders
C.
Hemoglobinopathies
D.
Hemolytic
4. A
hypoproliferative anemia can result from?
A. Marrow
damage
B. Iron
deficiency
C.
Inadequate EPO stimulation
D. All of
the above
5. Which
of the following is the iron regulatory hormone?
A.
Erythropoietin
B.
Transferrin
C. Hepcidin
D. All of
the above
6.
Nuclear maturation defects of RBCs result from all except?
A.
Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Folic
acid deficiency
C. Iron
deficiency
D.
Methotrexate therapy
7.
Cytoplasmic maturation defects of RBCs result from?
A. Severe
iron deficiency
B.
Abnormalities in heme synthesis
C.
Abnormalities in globin synthesis
D. Any of
the above
8.
According to WHO, anemia is defined as as a hemoglobin level of?
A. <
14 g/dL in men & < 13 g/dL in women
B. <
13 g/dL in men & < 12 g/dL in women
C. <
12 g/dL in men & < 11 g/dL in women
D. <
11 g/dL in men & < 10 g/dL in women
9.
Hematopoietic stem cell produce which of the following?
A. Red
cells
B. All
classes of granulocytes
C. Cells
of the immune system
D. All of
the above
10. In the
absence of erythropoietin (EPO), committed erythroid progenitor cells undergo?
A.
Stunted growth
B.
Halting of growth
C.
Programmed cell death (apoptosis)
D. Change
to other series of hematopoietic cell
11. How
many mature red cells are produced from a pronormoblast?
A. 1 to
16
B. 16 to
32
C. 32 to
48
D. 48 to
64
12.
Regulation of EPO production is linked to?
A. O2
B. CO2
C. Red
cell mass
D.
Hemoglobin concentration
13. Which
of the following about mature red cells is false?
A.
Diameter is 8 μm
B.
Anucleate
C.
Discoid in shape
D. None
of the above
14.
Surface of each platelet has how many GpIIb / IIIa binding sites?
A. ~
10,000
B. ~
25,000
C. ~
50,000
D. ~
100,000
15.
Tissue factor (TF) is present on?
A.
Subendothelial cellular components of vessel wall
B.
Circulating microparticles from monocytes
C.
Circulating microparticles from platelets
D. All of
the above
16. Which
of the following is a serine protease factor?
A. III
B. VIIa
C. IX
D. X
17.
Essential cofactor for conversion of prothrombin to thrombin is?
A. Va
B. VIIa
C. IX
D. X
18. Which
of the following in endothelial cells has antithrombotic effect?
A.
Prostacyclin
B. Nitric
oxide
C.
EctoADPase/CD39
D. All of
the above
19.
Anticoagulant factor produced by endothelial cells is?
A.
Heparan proteoglycans
B.
Antithrombin
C.
Thrombomodulin
D. All of
the above
20.
Normal level of Plasma EPO is?
A. 10 to
25 U/L
B. 25 to
50 U/L
C. 50 to
75 U/L
D. 75 to
100 U/L
21.
Target red cells best relate to?
A. Uremia
B.
Myelofibrosis
C.
Thalassemia
D. Acute
hemolysis
22.
Target cells are seen in?
A. Liver
disease
B.
Thalassemia
C.
Hemoglobin C disease
D. All of
the above
23.
Thermal injury may produce which of the following?
A. Target
cells
B. Burr
cells
C. Howell-Jolly
bodies
D. Red
cell fragmentation
24. Burr
cells are also called?
A.
Echinocytes
B.
Acanthocytes
C.
Elliptocytes
D.
Spherocytes
25.
Echinocytes are found in patients with?
A. Severe
uremia
B.
Glycolytic red cell enzyme defects
C. Microangiopathic
hemolytic anemia
D. All of
the above
26.
Acanthocytes are present in which of the following conditions?
A. Severe
liver disease
B.
Abetalipoproteinemia
C.
Patients with McLeod blood group
D. All of
the above
27.
Plasma EPO levels increase when hemoglobin falls below?
A. 10 to
12 g/dL
B. 8 to
10 g/dL
C. 6 to 8
g/dL
D. 4 to 6
g/dL
28. In
circulation, EPO has a half-clearance time of?
A. 1 to 3
hours
B. 3 to 6
hours
C. 6 to 9
hours
D. 9 to
12 hours
29. The
mean hematocrit value for adult males is?
A. 42 %
B. 45 %
C. 47 %
D. 49 %
30.
Anemia is most often recognized by?
A.
Attendant symptoms
B.
Attendant signs
C.
Abnormal screening laboratory tests
D. All of
the above
31.
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) assesses which of the following
factors?
A. Factor
VIII
B. Factor
IX
C. Factor
X
D. All of
the above
32.
Structure of Fibrinogen is?
A.
Uninodular
B.
Binodular
C.
Trinodular
D.
Quadrinodular
33.
Cross-linking of the D domains on adjacent fibrinogen molecules is done by?
A. FX
B. FXI
C. FXII
D. FXIIIa
34. Which
of the following about D-Dimers is false?
A.
Product of complete lysis of fibrin
B.
Released when plasmin acts on fibrin
C.
Relatively specific test of fibrin degradation
D.
Relatively specific test of fibrinogen degradation
35.
Normal level of D-Dimer in blood is?
A. <
500 pg/mL
B. <
500 ng/mL
C. <
500 μg/mL
D. <
500 mg/mL
36.
Plasma level of D-Dimer is?
A. 0.22 -
0.74 mg/mL
B. 0.22 -
0.74 μg/mL
C. 0.22 -
0.74 ng/mL
D. 0.22 -
0.74 pg/mL
37.
O2–hemoglobin dissociation curve relates to which of the following?
A. Claude
effect
B. Bohr
effect
C.
Charles effect
38. What
percentage of all circulating RBCs is replaced daily?
A. 0.2 to
0.4 %
B. 0.4 to
0.6 %
C. 0.6 to
0.8 %
D. 0.8 to
1%
39. Term
“erythron” best relates to?
A.
Erythroid/megakaryocyte progenitor
B. Red
cell destruction
C. Organ
responsible for red cell production
D. Red
blood cell mass
40.
Erythropoietin is a?
A.
Peptide hormone
B.
Glycoprotein hormone
C. Steroid
hormone
D. None
of the above
41. Signs
of vascular instability appear with acute blood loss of?
A. 5 to
10 % of total blood volume
B. 10 to
15 % of total blood volume
C. 15 to
20 % of total blood volume
D. 20 to
25% of total blood volume
42. Which
of the following produced by endothelial cells acts as an anticoagulant?
A.
Plasminogen activator inhibitor
B.
Thrombomodulin
C.
Prostacyclin
D. Nitric
oxide
43.
Bruising or mucosal bleeding may be the presenting complaint in?
A. Liver
disease
B. Severe
renal impairment,
C.
Hypothyroidism
D. All of
the above
44. All
coagulation factors are synthesized in?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. None
of the above
45. Which
of the following coagulation factors is dependent on vitamin K for posttranslational
modification?
A. Factor
II
B. Factor
VII
C. Factor
IX
D. All of
the above
46. Which
of the following proteins is dependent on vitamin K for posttranslational
modification?
A.
Protein C
B.
Protein S
C.
Protein Z
D. All of
the above
47. Normal
blood platelet count is?
A. 50,000
to 100,000/μL
B.
100,000 to 250,000/μL
C.
150,000 to 450,000/μL
D.
250,000 to 550,000/μL
48.
Epistaxis is the most common symptom in?
A.
Hemophilia A
B.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
C.
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
D.
Cushing’s syndrome
49.
Menorrhagia is a common symptom in women with?
A. VWD
B. Factor
XI deficiency
C.
Symptomatic carriers of hemophilia A
D. All of
the above
50. Which
of the following is called a “life-threatening site of bleeding”?
A. Bleeding
into oropharynx
B.
Bleeding into central nervous system
C.
Bleeding into retroperitoneum
D. All of
the above
51 Which
of the following about clopidogrel is false?
A.
Thienopyridine
B.
Inhibits ADP-mediated platelet aggregation
C. Can
precipitate or exacerbate bleeding symptoms
D. None
of the above
52. Herb
with potential anti-platelet activity is?
A. Ginger
B.
Turmeric
C. Garlic
D. All of
the above
53.
Thrombocytopenia results from?
A.
Decreased production of platelets
B. Increased
destruction of platelets
C.
Sequestration of platelets
D. (PT
ratio)
54.
Endothelial cells activate fibrinolytic mechanisms through the production of?
A. Tissue
plasminogen activator 1
B.
Urokinase
C.
Plasminogen activator inhibitor
D. All of
the above
55. Which
of the following best relates to heparin?
A.
Antithrombin III
B.
Protein C
C.
Protein S
D. All of
the above
56. Which
of the following becomes an anticoagulant when it is activated by thrombin?
A.
Antithrombin III
B.
Protein C
C.
Protein S
D. Tissue
factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
57. Which
of the following about thrombomodulin is false?
A.
Transmembrane proteoglycan binding site for thrombin on the endothelial cell
surface
B.
Thrombin-induced activation of protein C occurs physiologically on
thrombomodulin
C.
Anticoagulant factor from endothelial cell
D. None
of the above
58.
Activated protein C acts as an anticoagulant by cleaving and inactivating the
activated factor?
A. II
B. V
C. VI
D. X
59.
Hypovolemic shock results if volume of blood lost is?
A. >
25 %
B. >
30 %
C. >
35 %
D. >
40 %
60.
Intravascular hemolysis with release of free hemoglobin may be associated with?
A. Acute
back pain
B. Acute
pain in lower limbs
C. Acute
pain in upper limbs
D. Acute
headache
61. Which
of the following may be associated with autoimmune hemolysis?
A.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B.
Infection
C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
D. All of
the above
62. If
palmar creases are lighter in color than surrounding skin, hemoglobin level is
usually?
A. <
10 g/dL
B. < 8
g/dL
C. < 6
g/dL
D. < 4
g/dL
63.
Reliable estimate of red cell production is provided by?
A. EPO
levels
B.
Reticulocyte count
C. RDW
D.
Polychromasia
64.
“Shift” cells refer to?
A. Older
RBCs
B.
Prematurely released reticulocytes
C.
Normoblasts
D. Any of
the above
65. The
normal serum iron range is?
A. 10 to
50 μg / dL
B. 50 to
150 μg / dL
C. 150 to
250 μg / dL
D. 250 to
450 μg / dL
66. The
normal serum TIBC range is?
A. 100 to
150 μg / dL
B. 150 to
300 μg / dL
C. 300 to
360 μg / dL
D. 350 to
450 μg / dL
67.
Percent transferrin saturation is calculated by?
A. (TIBC
x 100) ÷ Serum iron
B. (Serum
iron + TIBC) ÷ 100
C. (Serum
iron x 100) ÷ TIBC
D. (Serum
iron ÷ TIBC) x 100
68. Adult
males have average serum ferritin levels of about?
A. 10 μg
/ L
B. 50 μg
/ L
C. 100 μg
/ L
D. 200 μg
/ L
69.
Increased red cell mass is present when hematocrit in men is?
A. >
45 %
B. >
50 %
C. >
55 %
D. >
60 %
70.
Gaisbock’s syndrome relates to?
A.
Spurious polycythemia
B. High
altitude polycythemia
C.
Ectopic EPO production
D.
Familial polycythemia
71.
EPO-producing neoplasms include?
A.
Hepatoma
B.
Uterine leiomyoma
C.
Cerebellar hemangiomas
D. All of
the above
72. In
the human hemostatic system, procoagulant forces include?
A.
Platelet adhesion
B.
Platelet aggregation
C. Fibrin
clot formation
D. All of
the above
73. The
major components of the hemostatic system are?
A.
Platelets, monocytes and red cells
B. Plasma
proteins
C. Vessel
wall
D. All of
the above
74. Which
of the following relates to protein S?
A.
Cofactor
B.
Glycoprotein
C.
Vitamin K dependent posttranslational modification
D. All of
the above
75. Which
of the following inhibits TF / FVIIa / FXa complex?
A.
Activated protein C
B.
Protein S
C. Tissue
factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
D. All of
the above
76.
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) be released by?
A.
Heparin
B.
Streptokinase
C.
Urokinase
D. All of
the above
77.
Plasminogen activators (tPA & uPA) cleave which bond of plasminogen to
generate the active enzyme plasmin?
A. Arg460
- Val461
B. Arg560
- Val561
C. Arg660
- Val661
D. Arg760
- Val761
78.
“Fibrin specific” activity of plasmin is due to its?
A.
Arginine-binding sites
B.
Lysine-binding sites
C.
Valine-binding sites
D.
Leucine-binding sites
79.
Physiologic regulation of fibrinolysis is done by?
A.
Plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAI-1 & PAI-2)
B.
Thrombin-activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor (TAFI)
C. a2-antiplasmin
D. All of
the above
80. Adult
females have average serum ferritin levels of about?
A. 10 μg
/ L
B. 30 μg
/ L
C. 60 μg
/ L
D. 90 μg
/ L
81.
Ferritin is also an?
A. Enzyme
B.
Cytokine
C.
Chemokine
D.
Acute-phase reactant
82.
Erythroid cells take about how many days to mature?
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 5.5
83.
Absolute reticulocyte count is calculated by?
A.
Reticulocyte count x (Hemoglobin ÷ expected hemoglobin)
B.
Reticulocyte count x (Hemoglobin + Hematocrit)
C.
Reticulocyte count x (Hemoglobin x Hematocrit)
D.
Reticulocyte count / (Hemoglobin + Hematocrit)
85. Which
of the following about macrocytes is false?
A. Red
cells are larger than a small lymphocyte
B. Well
hemoglobinized red cells
C. Often
oval shaped
D. None
of the above
86.
Howell-Jolly bodies best relate to which of the following?
A. Uremia
B.
Nuclear remnants
C.
Foreign bodies in the circulation
D. All of
the above
87. Which
of the following reflects iron supply?
A. Serum
iron
B. Total
iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
C. Serum
ferritin
D. All of
the above
88. Which
of the following formula estimates MCV?
A.
(Hematocrit x 10) / (red cell count x 106)
B.
(Hemoglobin x 10) / (red cell count x 106)
C.
(Hemoglobin x 10) / hematocrit
D.
(Hematocrit x 10) / hemoglobin
89.
Anisocytosis is related to which feature of RBC?
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Number
D. Colour
90.
Poikilocytosis is related to which feature of RBC?
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Number
D. Colour
91. RDW
correlates with?
A.
Anisocytosis
B.
Poikilocytosis
C. Polychromasia
D. All of
the above
92.
Increased red cell mass is present when hematocrit in men is?
A. >
45 %
B. >
50 %
C. >
55 %
D. >
60 %
93.
Gaisbock’s syndrome relates to?
A.
Spurious polycythemia
B. High
altitude polycythemia
C.
Ectopic EPO production
D.
Familial polycythemia
94.
EPO-producing neoplasms include?
A.
Hepatoma
B.
Uterine leiomyoma
C.
Cerebellar hemangiomas
D. All of
the above
95. In
the human hemostatic system, procoagulant forces include?
A.
Platelet adhesion
B.
Platelet aggregation
C. Fibrin
clot formation
D. All of
the above
96 The
major components of the hemostatic system are?
A.
Platelets, monocytes, and red cells
B. Plasma
proteins
C. Vessel
wall
D. All of
the above
97. Upon
staining with supravital dye, reticulocytes are identified by what colour of
punctate spots?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
98. Which
of the following is false about the spleen?
A.
Decreases in size with age
B. Lies
entirely within rib cage
C.
Maximum cephalocaudad diameter is 13 cm by USG
D.
Maximum width of 14 cm by radionuclide scan
99.
Katayama fever is characterized by all except?
A. Fever
B.
Generalized lymphadenopathy
C.
Lymphocytosis
D.
Hepatosplenomegaly
100.
Middleton maneuver is used for splenic?
A.
Inspection
B. Palpation
C.
Percussion
D.
Auscultation
101.
Which of the following is false in spleen examination?
A.
Auscultation may reveal venous hum or friction rub
B.
Bimanual palpation in right lateral decubitus position adds nothing to supine
examination
C. Reproducibility
among examiners is better for palpation than percussion
D. None
of the above
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